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The nurse has just administered the first doses of the following medications. Which is most likely the cause of a new-onset headache?
The development of a headache is most likely a side effect of pantoprazole (a proton-pump inhibitor). Sumatriptan is a medication that is commonly used to relieve migraine headaches. Metoclopromide may cause restlessness and anxiety. Sucralfate may cause constipation. Side effects are rarely seen with magnesium hydroxide, they include nausea, constipation, and aluminum deficiency due to overexcretion via binding phosphate in the stomach.
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A nurse is preparing a client to receive pain medication to aid with the discomfort of labor. The client is being prepped to undergo a pudendal nerve block. The nurse will explain the affects of such a block.
A pudendal block is responsible for which of the following pharmacological actions in regards to providing anesthesia during labor?
A pudendal block is a useful type of anesthesia often utilized during the second stage of the labor process. It provides anesthesia for an episiotomy performed in the perineum area.
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What is the purpose of Beer's criteria?
Beer's criteria is used in medicine as a list of drugs that should not be prescribed in the elderly. These drugs can have potentially disastrous complications for older adults, including falls and other serious injuries. Older patients undergoing pallative care typically do not need to follow Beer's criteria.
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is being treated with oral vancomycin, an antibiotic, for Clostridium difficile diarrhea. Which of the following choices best describes the mechanism of action of vancomycin?
The correct answer is "Disruption of peptidoglycan cross-linkage," as this is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic, vancomycin. Vancomycin has high clinical utility in medicine, as it can be administered orally to treat Clostridium difficile diarrhea, or intravenously to treat MRSA infections, among others. As such, it is important to be well aware of vancomycin in clinical practice.
Inhibition of topoisomerase II is the mechanism of action of fluroquinolone antibiotics, such as levofloxacin.
Disruption of mycolic acid synthesis is the mechanism of action of anti-fungal medications.
Inhibition of integrase is the mechanism of action of some anti-retroviral drugs, as would be used in the treatment of diseases like HIV.
Inhibition of peptide elongation is the mechanism of action of macrolide antibiotics, such as azithromycin.
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is receiving an antibiotic, clindamycin, for the treatment of an oral infection. Which of the following choices best describes the mechanism of action of clindamycin?
The correct answer is "blockage of peptide elongation by binding 50S ribosome site," as this is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic, clindamycin.
Inhibition of DNA gyrase is one of the mechanisms of action of fluoroquinolone antibiotics, such as levofloxacin.
Inhibition of RNA transcription is one of the mechanisms of action of bacitracin, a topical antibiotic.
Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim, an antibiotic that is often combined with sulfamethoxazole to inhibit folic acid synthesis.
Prevention of folic acid synthesis is the ultimate mechanism of action of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (both individually and when given together).
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The nurse has just administered the first doses of the following medications. Which is most likely the cause of a new-onset headache?
The development of a headache is most likely a side effect of pantoprazole (a proton-pump inhibitor). Sumatriptan is a medication that is commonly used to relieve migraine headaches. Metoclopromide may cause restlessness and anxiety. Sucralfate may cause constipation. Side effects are rarely seen with magnesium hydroxide, they include nausea, constipation, and aluminum deficiency due to overexcretion via binding phosphate in the stomach.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
A nurse is preparing a client to receive pain medication to aid with the discomfort of labor. The client is being prepped to undergo a pudendal nerve block. The nurse will explain the affects of such a block.
A pudendal block is responsible for which of the following pharmacological actions in regards to providing anesthesia during labor?
A pudendal block is a useful type of anesthesia often utilized during the second stage of the labor process. It provides anesthesia for an episiotomy performed in the perineum area.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
What is the purpose of Beer's criteria?
Beer's criteria is used in medicine as a list of drugs that should not be prescribed in the elderly. These drugs can have potentially disastrous complications for older adults, including falls and other serious injuries. Older patients undergoing pallative care typically do not need to follow Beer's criteria.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is being treated with oral vancomycin, an antibiotic, for Clostridium difficile diarrhea. Which of the following choices best describes the mechanism of action of vancomycin?
The correct answer is "Disruption of peptidoglycan cross-linkage," as this is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic, vancomycin. Vancomycin has high clinical utility in medicine, as it can be administered orally to treat Clostridium difficile diarrhea, or intravenously to treat MRSA infections, among others. As such, it is important to be well aware of vancomycin in clinical practice.
Inhibition of topoisomerase II is the mechanism of action of fluroquinolone antibiotics, such as levofloxacin.
Disruption of mycolic acid synthesis is the mechanism of action of anti-fungal medications.
Inhibition of integrase is the mechanism of action of some anti-retroviral drugs, as would be used in the treatment of diseases like HIV.
Inhibition of peptide elongation is the mechanism of action of macrolide antibiotics, such as azithromycin.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is receiving an antibiotic, clindamycin, for the treatment of an oral infection. Which of the following choices best describes the mechanism of action of clindamycin?
The correct answer is "blockage of peptide elongation by binding 50S ribosome site," as this is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic, clindamycin.
Inhibition of DNA gyrase is one of the mechanisms of action of fluoroquinolone antibiotics, such as levofloxacin.
Inhibition of RNA transcription is one of the mechanisms of action of bacitracin, a topical antibiotic.
Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim, an antibiotic that is often combined with sulfamethoxazole to inhibit folic acid synthesis.
Prevention of folic acid synthesis is the ultimate mechanism of action of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (both individually and when given together).
Compare your answer with the correct one above