Consciousness and Thought - MCAT Social and Behavioral Sciences

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Question

With regard to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, at what age would a normal child most likely be in the concrete operational stage?

Answer

Piaget identified four stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operational, and formal operational. Each stage is correlated with a series of essential developmental milestones, such as language acquisition and ability to perform simple mathematical calculations. The sensorimotor stage extends from birth to approximately age two, when the child first begins to speak. The pre-operational stage extends from age two to age seven, encompassing the development of imaginative rather than logical or concrete capabilities. The concrete operational stage takes place between ages seven and eleven, during which the child develops logical processing. The formal operational stage extends from age eleven to late teens (15-20) and is defined by the development of higher level thought, such as deductive reasoning, hypothetical thinking, and problem-solving skills.

For this question, we are looking for an answer choice between ages seven and eleven.

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Question

Though the bond between parent and child begins at birth, attachment patterns can be better identified once the child becomes mobile and is able to walk and explore their surroundings. Thus, birth to 18 months of age is a critical time in which attachment bonds form and in which attachment styles begin to be observed and solidified.

Erik Erikson’s first stage of development, which also encompasses birth to 18 months of age, coincides nicely with attachment theory and its tenets. Which of the following best describes the basic conflict in Erikson’s first stage?

Answer

Each stage reflects a dialectical struggle between two tendencies, resolution of each conflict results in healthy personality and the acquisition of basic virtues.

The first stage occurs during infancy, and its basic conflict is Trust vs. Mistrust. At this stage, the child develops a sense of trust when caregivers provide consistent and reliable care and affection. This is akin to the formation of secure attachment as described by attachment theory.

The second stage in Erikson’s model occurs during early childhood. During this stage, the child must resolve the conflict of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. Children discover their independence using different skills and abilities (e.g. potty training, learning to tie their own shoes, etc.). Success leads to feelings of autonomy, while failure results in feelings of shame and doubt.

The third stage occurs during the preschool years; the conflict to be resolved is Initiative vs. Guilt. Children try to assert control over their environment and begin to feel a sense of purpose when they succeed. If the child experiences disapproval as a result of their attempts, a sense of guilt is instilled.

The fourth stage in Erikson’s model deals with the conflict of Industry vs. Inferiority. Children are in the midst of coping with new academic and social demands. Success leads to a sense of competence, while failure results in feelings of inferiority.

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Question

A child that can think in abstract concepts and is able to systematically solve a problem in a logical way—rather than through trial-and-error—is at what stage of cognitive development?

Answer

The use of abstract reasoning and logic emerges during the formal operational stage. Adolescents who reach this fourth stage of intellectual development are able to logically use symbols related to abstract concepts, such as algebra and science.

While intriguing, the other choices are incorrect. The key feature of the preoperational stage is egocentrism. During this stage, children are able to think about things symbolically. Their language becomes more mature and they develop memory and imagination; however, their thinking is based on intuition and still not completely logical (i.e. they cannot yet grasp more complex concepts such as cause and effect or comparisons). At the concrete operational stage, children’s thinking becomes less egocentric and they are increasingly aware of external events. Children develop operational thinking, but still can’t tackle a problem with several variables in a systematic way. The sensorimotor stage occurs during the first two years of life. Infants are constantly experimenting with objects, using their senses to familiarize themselves with the world, such as by putting things in their mouths, and learning about the world through trial and error. Last, the assimilation-accommodation stage is not one of Piaget's developmental stages.

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Question

Milgram’s experiment was designed to test the conditions under which a person’s morality could be overridden by an authority figure who asked the person to carry out an action contradictory to his or her moral beliefs. A person’s morality develops through which of the following?

Answer

Morality is a set of standards of conduct that is specific to the social group one is embedded in. Socialization is the process by which one person becomes a member of a group, and learning the moral standards of the group is important to retaining group membership. This means that morality cannot develop in isolation, since it is a group-level concept. Morality also does not develop through genetics; although genetics may play a role in a person’s ability to behave morally, the particular moral standards a person holds are learned from the social group they are embedded in. Last, compliance is defined as going along with what others in a group think is right, but it does not imply that the person who is compliant actually agrees with the actions of the group.

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Question

A father has two identical juice boxes. He pours one into a tall, skinny cup for his daughter Sarah, and one into a short, wide cup for his son Max. Max begins crying, insisting that Sarah got more juice.

According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, which stage must Max meet in order to understand that he and Sarah received the same amount of juice?

Answer

The concept being addressed in this question is the principle of conservation, in which children learn that quantity stays the same even with changes in shape. The best example is when pouring the same amount of liquid into containers of varying shapes. Children learn this principle in Piaget's concrete operational stage (ages 7 to 11).

The other listed stages in Piaget’s model are incorrect. The sensorimotor stage is from infancy to age 2, during which they learn the principle of object permanence—objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen. The preoperational stage is from ages 2 to 7. It is when children learn that symbols and language can be used to represent things; however, they still cannot use logical reasoning. The final stage is the formal operational stage, from age 12 through adulthood. Abstract and moral reasoning develop during this stage.

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Question

Which of the following make up the most likely misarticulated speech sounds in a 10-year-old patient with persistent difficulties in the clear articulation of the individual sounds that combine to make up spoken words?

Answer

The correct answer is "s, z, and th." The presence of speech production difficulties that are outside normal limits and not due to congenital or acquired conditions is pathognomonic for speech sound disorder. Speech sound disorder may occur when children with speech production difficulties have difficulty with phonological knowledge of speech sounds or articulation.

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Question

What is the most likely diagnosis in a 6-year-old child with speech that is characterized by broken words produced with an excess of physical tension, silent blocking, and sound and syllable repetitions?

Answer

Childhood-onset fluency disorder is the correct answer. It is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by disturbances in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech that is inappropriate for the child's age. It can also present with anxiety about speaking. The symptoms of frequent repetitions and other speech dysfluencies presented here characterize this disorder.

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Question

Alan Baddeley's model for working memory is comprised of four parts. Which of the following is not one of the four components of the model?

Answer

Baddeley's Model of Working Memory consists of the following four parts: the central executive, phonological loop, episodic buffer, and visuospatial sketchpad. The semantic buffer does not exist in his model, and is the correct answer. The central executive acts like the "boss" of the other three components and directs our attention. The phonologial loop gives us the ability to temporarily hold spoken or written information in our memory through repetition; for example, you use this when trying to remember a phone number. The visuospatial sketchpad allows us to temporarily remember visuospatial information via mental images. For example, you may use this when navigating through a room to remember there is a chair to your left even when it is out of sight. Last, the episodic buffer is used to relate current experiences to memories of the past. For example, if you see a house and realize it looks similar to your childhood home.

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Question

Dementia is a symptom associated with which of the following conditions?

Answer

Alzhemier's disease is the most common form of dementia. Nerve cells in the area of the brain associated with memory and cognition are disrupted by plaques and tangles. The disease begins with mild memory loss and progresses to a point where the patient is unable to perform necessary everyday tasks.

Parkinson's disease is associated with abnormal movements, tremors, and a shuffling gait. The symptoms of Parkinson's disease are caused by a lack of the neurotransmitter dopamine, which is caused by a degeneration of neurons.

Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, progressive disorder caused by the body's immune system attacking the myelin sheathes surrounding nerve fibers in the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves. This damage leads to muscle weakness, numbness, and vision loss.

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, or Lou Gehrig disease, occurs when motor neurons progressively deteriorate. This leads to muscle weakness that can progress to paralysis.

A stroke, also called a cerebral vascular accident, occurs when the blood supply to the brain is suddenly interrupted and brain cells are deprived of oxygen. The symptoms of a stroke include sudden onset of weakness, especially on one side of the body, trouble speaking, and vision disturbrances.

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Question

Two close friends are having a conversation on the phone. One of the friends asks the other if she can have the phone number of one of their classmates, so that she can speak to him about forming a study group for the MCAT exam. After hanging up the phone, the girl can only remember the last few digits of the phone number. This phenomenon is known as which of the following?

Answer

The girl in the question only remembers the last few numbers, which is known as the "recency effect." The recency effect occurs when someone attempts to memorize information and can only recall the last pieces of information that they are attempting to memorize. This likely occurs because the information is still readily available in the phonological loop, and has not yet truly been committed to memory. On the other hand, the "primacy effect" describes the opposite phenomena, when only the first pieces of information are recalled. "Encoding" is the process of transferring information from our senses to memory, and is not descriptive enough to properly answer the question. Finally, "classical conditioning" involves pairing an arbitrary stimulus with a behavior, and has more to do with learned behaviors than memory.

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Question

A correlation coefficient of is the amount of the variance in the dependent variable unexplained by the levels of the independent variable alleged to produce the effect under study. A correlation coefficient of 0.3 leaves what percent of the variance in the dependent variable unexplained by the independent variable?

Answer

If the correlation coefficient is 0.3, then the proportion of variance explained by the independent variable is 9 percent.

In other words, the correlation coefficient is denoted as follows:

The explained variance is found using the following formula:

Thus, 81% of the variance remains unexplained by variations in the independent variable.

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Question

Which of the following lobes of the brain is involved in executive functions such as self-control, planning, reasoning, and abstract thought?

Answer

While all lobes of the brain directly influence each other and intercommunicate, the "frontal lobe" is the area of the brain most directly involved in executive functions such as self-control, planning, reasoning, and abstract thought.

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Question

The hippocampus is a subpart of which of the following brain structures?

Answer

The hippocampus is part of the limbic system of the brain—a system that is responsible for many aspects of human functioning, including emotions and memory. The frontal lobe, which controls inhibition and attention, helps regulate executive function. The basal ganglia are situated at the base of the forebrain and are mainly comprised of striatum, the globus pallidus, the substantia nigra, the nucleus accumbens, and the subthalamic nucleus. They are associated with voluntary movement, procedural learning, and emotions, but not associated with episodic memory as the hippocampus is. The occipital lobe of the brain is at the back of the head, and is primarily associated with vision. Last, the cerebral aqueduct is part of the ventricular system in the brain and has nothing to do with higher processing.

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Question

Which area of the brain is most directly associated with an individual's overall level of alertness and arousal?

Answer

The reticular formation is a set of nuclei located in the brainstem that control an individual's level of alertness through its three columns: the raphe nuclei (helps synthesize serotonin for mood control), magnocellular red nucleus (aids in motor coordination), and parvoreticular cellular nucleus (helps breathing control—specifically exhalation).

The substantia nigra is a group of dopaminergic neurons located in the basal ganglia that synthesize the majority of the dopamine in the brain. The pons relay signals to the cerebellum from lower brain centers, and deals with sleep, reflexes, taste, facial expressions, facial sensation, and posture. It is located above the medulla oblongata, which houses the olivary nuclei that form the reticular formation. The frontal lobe allows for control of attention, tasks associated with short-term memory, planning, and motivation. It is comprised mainly of dopamine-sensitive neurons, which allows for selection of relevant information from the thalamus. Last, the lateral geniculate nucleus is a thalamic relay center for the visual system. It receives sensory information from the retina via the optic nerve and relays it posteriorly to the occipital lobe.

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Question

What area of the brain is most closely correlated with production of speech?

Answer

"Broca's area," a small region of the posteriolateral frontal lobe, is responsible for the production of speech. Deficiencies in this area are associated with normal comprehension of words, syntax, and grammar, but an inability to form words for personal expression.

The other choices are incorrect. The "pons" is a part of the brainstem and not involved in language production. The "amygdala" is a part of the limbic system, while the the "corpus callosum" is a wide, flat bundle of neural fibers that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain.

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Question

An individual comes into a clinic after a minor stroke. His family states that since his stroke he has begun to speak in nonsense. His word choice seems random, with nouns and verbs that are unrelated, and bizarre syntax and grammar. He also does not seem to be able to understand when he is addressed directly. His affect has not changed, nor has his basic motor coordination.

He likely suffered injury to which of the following areas of the brain?

Answer

This individual most likely experienced injury to "Wernicke's area," the part of the brain that is responsible for language comprehension. Damage to this area can result in difficulty understanding speech, and while the ability to produce language may be unaffected, speech is often disordered, non-sensical, or interspersed with inappropriate words or phrases. This is known as Wernicke's aphasia.

The other choices are incorrect. Damage to "Broca's area" would result in impairment with producing words (i.e. getting the words out), with no effect on comprehension. Injury to the "cerebellum" may result in balance or physical coordination issues, while destruction of the "substantia nigra" is typically seen in Parkinson's disease.

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Question

With regard to stages of sleep and consciousness, delta waves are most commonly associated with which of the following?

Answer

The stages of sleep include three non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages and one rapid eye movement (REM) stage. The stages proceed in the following order and cycle such that N1 follows REM: N1, N2, N3, REM.

During N1, the individual loses sensation of his or her environment and becomes more relaxed, both mentally and physiologically. Brain waves slowly transition from alpha waves (characteristic of wakefulness) to lower frequency theta waves.

During N2, environmental awareness completely disappears. Brain waves are characterized by sleep spindles and K-complexes, which are short bursts of higher frequency waves. General wave patterns follow theta wave trends, with the exception of these interruptions.

During N3, the individual enters deep sleep. Brain activity is characterized by a high presence of very low frequency delta waves. Parasomnias, such as sleepwalking and night terrors, can occur during stage N3 sleep.

REM sleep is characterized by neural acetylcholine secretions, which cause brain waves to increase in frequency and resemble alpha forms. The body's muscles are paralyzed, though the brain's activity is elevated. Dreams occur during this stage, and muscle paralysis is thought to prevent the sleeping individual from attempting to interact with their dreams.

Delta waves are most concretely linked to the N3 stage of sleep.

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Question

Which of the following is characteristic of stage 1 of non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep)?

Answer

The non-rapid eye movement stage of sleep, NREM or synchronized sleep, involves four stages. The transition from wakefulness to sleep occurs during stage 1. Eye movements are slow and the electroencepalogram (EEG) shows low brain wave activity. In stage 2, EEG activity is increased. Spikes called K complexes are recorded. In stage 3, eye movement ceases. Wave frequency is reduced and amplitude is increased. Delta activity is recorded on the EEG in stage 4. Stages 3 and 4 are considered deep sleep.

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Question

Which of the following is recorded on electroencephalogram during deep sleep?

Answer

Stages 3 and 4 of non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep) are considered deep sleep. Stage 3 is characterized by an increase in amplitude and a reduction of wave frequency. During stage 4 sleep, delta activity is recorded. Stage 1 is the transition from wakefulness to sleep. The EEG shows low brain wave activity. In stage 2, EEG activity is increased, with the appearance of spikes called K complexes.

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Question

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM sleep)?

Answer

Sleep has two states: one with no rapid eye movement (NREM or synchronized sleep, which involves four stages) and one with rapid eye movements (REM or dreaming sleep). NREM sleep comprises approximately 75% of the sleep cycle. During NREM sleep, respiration becomes slower and more regular as transition from wakefulness to sleep occurs. During stage 4, or deep sleep, delta activity is recorded on the EEG.

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