Injuries and Disorders - Human Anatomy and Physiology

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Question

What symptom is normally seen with the sacralization of L5 vertebra and why?

Answer

The lumbar region of the vertebrae is known for its high mobility and ability to support body weight. If it receives inappropriate signals during development and fuses with the sacrum, it will result in a loss of mobility in the individual.

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Question

What carpal bone articulates with the radius and is the most commonly fractured bone in the wrist?

Answer

The scaphoid, which articulates with the distal radius, is a very common fractured bone. It is located at the base of the thumb.

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Question

A Monteggia fracture is an injury to bone?

Answer

A Monteggia fracture is a fracture-dislocation injury that involves a fracture of the proximal ulna, and dislocation of the proximal radius.

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Question

Which of the following describes a grade V Salter-Harris fracture?

Answer

A Salter-Harris type V fracture is a compress ion injury of the epiphyseal plate. The other choices listed are type I is a transverse fracture through the epiphyseal plate. Type IV is a fracture extending from the epiphysis, through the epiphyseal plate, and into the metaphysis. Type III is a fracture through the epiphyseal plate and epiphysis. Type II is a fracture through the epiphyseal plate, with small fracture through metaphysis ("chip fracture").

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Question

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease involves avascular necrosis of which bone?

Answer

While the other bones listed are common sites of avascular necrosis, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease specifically refers to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

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Question

Which motion at the ankle, when take to the extreme, is likely to result in an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus?

Answer

End range ankle eversion tenses the deltoid ligament (medial collateral ligament of the ankle). However, at the extremes of ankle eversion, the high tensile strength of the deltoid ligament can cause the medial malleolus to avulse from the tibia. During inversion, this ligament is not tense.

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Question

Osgood-Schlatter's is characterized by repeated avulsion fractures of which bone?

Answer

Although bony prominences on the other bones listed are common sites for avulsion fractures, Osgood-Schlatter's disease refers to the repeated avulsion of the tibial tuberosity, which can occur during growth spurts.

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Question

Following anterior dislocation of the humerus, the posterolateral posrtion of the humeral head can become injured. What is the name for this type of injury?

Answer

(Superior Lateral Anterior Posterior) SLAP and Bankart tears are injuries to the glenoid labrum. Reverse-Hill Sachs and McLaughlin lesion are synonymous, however they are injuries to the anteromedial portion of the humeral head, and are caused by posterior dislocation of the humerus.

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Question

An open-book fracture describes an injury to which body region?

Answer

An open book fracture is an injury to the pelvis. In this injury, the pubic symphysis is disrupted, causing the pelvis to look like an open book.

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Question

Which of the following diseases is not associated with damage to bones?

Answer

Paget's disease is a bone disease characterized by rapid bone degradation, and rebound bone growth however, the bone is laid bone in a disorganized manner and is prone to further degeneration. Pott's disease is characterized by destruction of thoracic vertebra, secondary to tuberculosis infection. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder caused by abnormalities in type I collagen production, that makes the patient prone to fracture. de Quervain syndrome is also known as de Quervain tenosynovitis, and is characterized by irritation to the sheath covering the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons.

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Question

If you read a patient’s medical history, and saw that she had gunstock deformity, which joint would you examine for this deformity?

Answer

A gunstock deformity (cubitus varus) refers to a deformity at the elbow joint, where the distal forearm is deviated medially (compared to typical anatomical alignment). Conversely, if a patient's distal forearm is deviated excessively laterally, she is said to demonstrate cubitus valgus. Cubitus varus is most commonly caused by supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Fortunately, this deformity is largely cosmetic in nature, and causes few functional limitations.

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Question

You’re reading your patient’s medical history, and find he suffered a Monteggia fracture. Based on this information, which joint would expect to be affected?

Answer

A Monteggia fracture refers to a fracture of the shaft of the ulna, and a concurrent dislocation of the head of the radius. Accordingly, this type of fracture-dislocation injury also affects the humeroradial joint (part of the elbow complex). This type of injury is often caused by falling on an outstretched arm, which could affect the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints as well.

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Question

Which of these refers to an avulsion injury to the thumb?

Answer

A gamekeeper's fracture refers to an avulsion injury at the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb, secondary to a rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb. Mallet finger refers to a rupture of one of the extensor digitorum tendons, at the distal interphalangeal joints. A boxer's fracture is a fracture of one of the metacarpals. A Pott's fracture is a type of ankle fracture involving the medial and lateral malleoli.

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Question

Which of the following injuries to the humerus occurs after an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint?

Answer

A Hill-Sachs lesion occurs after the head of the humerus abuts that glenoid rim of the scapula, injuring the articular cartilage, when the humerus is dislocated anteriorly. If the humerus is dislocated posteriorly, it can result in a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. SLAP and Bankhart lesions are injuries of the glenoid labrum and thus, are not viable answers to this question.

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Question

Which of the following is a bony outgrowth associated with the degeneration of cartilage at joints particularly on vertebral bodies?

Answer

Osteophytes (bone spurs) are bony projections that form at joints. Osteophytes occur when there are changes to bone formation via aging, mechanical instability, degeneration, and disease, including arthritis (which is the most common cause of osteophyte formation). Osteophytes form naturally on the spine via degeneration of the vertebrae with aging. Osteophytes do not cause pain, but may impinge on nerves which will lead to pain, and/or numbness and tingling sensations. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.

Enthesophytes are bony projections that form at ligament or tendon attachments.

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Question

Which bone disease is commonly seen elderly females?

Answer

Osteoporosis is a breakdown of bone, commonly due to a lack of calcium, which is typically lost faster in females due to a menstruation cycle, and chronic breakdown with age. Also, females have less bone density to begin with.

Osteo- (which is going to be a Latin based root word for bone) will help you eliminate the other answers, which are all inflammation of non-bony structures within the body.

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Question

A 47-year old woman is brought by ambulance to the trauma bay after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is unresponsive, with a blood pressure of 78/42 and pulse 132. She is immediately intubated and breath sounds are confirmed. Her heart sounds are normal and peripheral pulses are intact. There is no obvious bleeding and two large bore IVs are started. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a fluid collection in the left upper quadrant. She continues to deteriorate and is brought emergently to the OR for exploratory laparotomy, where packing of the abdomen reveals extensive bleeding in the left upper quadrant. What do you expect is the cause of this bleeding?

Answer

Blood collecting in the left upper quadrant would suggest a splenic laceration.

The spleen is one of the most commonly injured organs with blunt abdominal trauma. It can and will bleed enough to make a patient hemodynamically unstable. Ultrasound performed in the trauma bay looks at four potential spaces of fluid collection: Morrison's pouch (right upper quadrant/liver), splenorenal recess (left upper quadrant/spleen), subxiphoid (heart), and the pouch of Douglas (suprapubic/pelvis). The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen and the spleen in the left upper quadrant

This patient's ultrasound showed fluid collection in the perisplenic space as well as extensive bleeding, which would suggest a splenic laceration as the cause of the patient's condition.

The liver is in the right upper quadrant. The right and left iliac arteries are in the right and left lower quadrants, respectively. Bladder laceration would result in fluid collection in the pelvis.

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Question

What is the disease caused by the parasite Giardia?

Answer

Giardiasis is the disease caused by the Giardia parasite. The parasite is passed through feces and can live up to several weeks outside of a host. Common symptoms of giardiasis is diarrhea, gas, stomach cramps, and dehydration. It is treated via prescription medication. Gastritis is characterized by inflammation of the stomach. In giardiasis, the intestines are affected. Gout is a rheumatoid disease and is not caused by an infectious agent. Geranium is a type of flower.

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Question

What causes salmonella?

Answer

Salmonella is an illness caused by a bacterium. Salmonella is often found in raw egg or poultry. It typically presents with gastrointestinal discomfort, diarrhea, and fever. It can be treated with antibiotics, but rarely becomes serious unless it is present in the old, the young, or the immunocompromised.

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Question

When a patient has true "heartburn," their heart is not actually the problem; they are suffering from Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD), also known as acid reflux. In this condition, acidic gastric contents inappropriately travel back from the stomach into the esophagus due to the faulty function of which structure?

Answer

The correct answer is the lower esophageal sphincter. In "heartburn," a patient's lower esophageal sphincter, which separates the distal esophagus from the proximal stomach, transiently relaxes its tone, inappropriately allowing food/digestive contents that have been acidified for digestion in the stomach to travel backwards into the distal esophagus. In patients with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone, i.e. without GERD, digestive contents that have passed to the stomach remain in the stomach without traveling backwards and causing an acidic, burning sensation in the esophagus.

The other answers are incorrect for the following reasons:

The epiglottis prevents food from being swallowed into the airway by closing off the airway temporarily during swallowing. It does not separate the esophagus from the stomach.

The upper esophageal sphincter is located proximally in the esophagus and opens to allow food to enter the esophagus from the pharynx. It does not separate the esophagus from the stomach.

The ileocecal valve is located distally in the small intestine, separating the ileum from the cecum of the colon. It functions to prevent colo-ileal reflux, but not gastro-esophageal reflux.

The left mainstem bronchus does not play any role in digestion of food or acid reflux, as it is part of the more distal respiratory tract.

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