Lab Techniques - GRE Subject Test: Biology

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Question

A researcher is performing PCR to amplify a sample of DNA. Unfortunately, he forgot to add the DNA primer prior to starting the experiment. Which of the following results is he most likely to observe?

Answer

The primers are absolutely essential for the functionality of a PCR reaction. The heat-resistant DNA polymerases need the RNA primers to anneal before they can begin replicating DNA. Without the primers, there is no way for the DNA polymerase to function and, therefore, no product will be obtained.

Primers are essential for any DNA replication process and are synthesized by primase during in vivo replication. For PCR, primers targeted to specific genes are artificially created and introduced to the sample. Only when the primers are bound will DNA polymerase be recruited to the replication site.

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Question

A student researcher wants to clone the human hemoglobin gene (HBB) into an expression vector so that he can express HBB in mouse cells and observe the resulting phenotype.

Which sequence of techniques will allow the student researcher to successfully clone the HBB gene?

Answer

The most logical procedure for the student is to first use PCR to amplify the HBB gene from human genomic DNA with primers that have restriction sites at the ends (this will faciliate ligation to a restriction enzyme digested vector). Next, the expression vector should be digested using a restriction enzyme, and then the digested vector and the amplified HBB gene can be ligated together. The final product will be two segments of the original vector with the HBB gene spliced between them.

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Question

A student researcher wants to change five consecutive base pairs in the middle of a PCR amplified fragment of DNA. What technique is best suited for this experiment?

Answer

The most suitable technique is PCR mutagenesis. The student will design primers that anneal imperfectly at the desired site of mutagenesis. These primers will contain the new 5-base pair sequence to be inserted in the new strand. One PCR will amplify a fragment containing the new mutant sequence and all upstream sequences. A second PCR will amplify a fragment containing the mutant sequence and all downstream sequences. Finally, a PCR will amplify one sequence from the two templates, using the original primers used to amplify the full-length fragment.

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Question

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) employs a heat-stable polymerase, such as Taq polymerase, to assemble the amplified strand of DNA. Which of the following best describes why heat-stable polymerases are ideal for PCR?

Answer

Polymerases are simply enzymes, and enzymes often denature at high temperatures. If a normal polymerase were used, it would become denatured during every high-temperature phase, which is required for breaking the double-stranded DNA into single-stranded templates. By using heat-stable polymerase, the enzyme will not denature, and there is no need to add new polymerase after every step of the cycle. The DNA strands will continue to be amplified by the heat-stable polymerase originally added.

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Question

What are the three steps to PCR thermocycling?

Answer

The steps of thermocycling involves denaturation, annealing and extension.

Denaturation is done at a high temperature generally around 94-98°C to break apart the hydrogen bonds of double stranded DNA into single strands.

Annealing is the second step of thermocycling completed at 50-65°C. This step must be done at a temperature low enough allowing primers to attach to the single strand, but high enough that hybridization is specific.

The extension or elongation step of thermocycling is used to allow the DNA polymerase to create the new complementary strand to the template DNA strand. Temperature depends on the DNA polymerase being used but generally ranges from 75-80°C.

Prior to the stages of thermocycling there is a often a hot start step to activate the polymerase if necessary. Following the stages of thermocycling is a final extension stage and final hold stage.

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Question

Majority of the time PCR amplifications include an Initialization step, also known as the Hot Start. What is the purpose of the Hot Start?

Answer

The Initialization Step or Hot Start occurs prior to thermocycling in order to activate the DNA polymerase. This is a 1 to ten minute incubation at 95°C. The purpose of using a DNA polymerase that requires a hot start activation is to prevent non-specific amplification products.

Primers begin binding to the template strand during the annealing step. Extension of the DNA strand occurs later in the thermocycling process. Adenylation of the new strand by DNA polymerase occurs during a final elongation step after the thermocycling rounds. DNA double strands are broken apart in the denaturation step of thermocycling.

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Question

Which of the following is not a component of a polymerase chain reaction mix?

Answer

The major eight components of a polymerase chain reaction are: DNA polymerase, buffer solution, primers, magnesium chloride, dNTPs (adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine), the deoxynucleotide triphosphates, DNA template strand, water, and bovine serum albumin (BSA) (optional).

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Question

What type of instrument is generally used to complete a PCR amplification?

Answer

A thermocycler is used to complete a PCR amplification. The thermocycler can be set to cycle through the denaturation, annealing, and extension stages in a determined amount of cycles based on the reaction volume.

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Question

After four cycles of thermocycling, how many copies of the targeted region will be in the PCR product?

Answer

PCR increases DNA product exponentially. 2 parents strands of DNA are split in the first cycle and amplified into 2 copies of DNA. The second cycles results in amplification of both of the first cycle products. The amount of strands doubles giving you 4 copies after the second cycle. The pattern continues and the amplificed product doubles with each cycle.

First cycle: 2 copies

Second cycle: 4 copies (22)

Third cycle: 8 copies (23)

Fourth cycle: 16 copies (24)

Fifth cycle: 32 copies (25 )

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Question

Which is not a characteristic of a multiplex PCR reaction?

Answer

All of these answers are characteristics of multiplex PCR reactions. A multiplex reaction is meant to simultaneously amplify several different target regions of DNA utilizing several sets of primers. Incorporating several different primer sets is similar to performing multiple PCR reaction all in one tube. The advantage being that less reagents are used and the process is less time consuming. Because all of the primers are acting in one reaction tube they must be optimized to perform at similar annealing temperatures and under similar conditions.

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Question

Which step of PCR thermocycling is meant to allow the DNA polymerase to add nucleotides to the complementary strand?

Answer

The extension or elongation step of thermocycling is used to allow the DNA polymerase to create the new complementary strand to the template DNA strand. Temperature depends on the DNA polymerase being used but generally ranges from 75-80°C.

Denaturation is done at a high temperature generally around 94-98°C to break apart the hydrogen bonds of double stranded DNA into single strands.

Annealing is the second step of thermocycling completed at 50-65°C. This step must be done at a temperature low enough allowing primers to attach to the single strand, but high enough that hybridization is specific.

Prior to the stages of thermocycling there is a often a hot start step to activate the polymerase if necessary. Following the stages of thermocycling is a final extension stage and final hold stage.

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Question

The goal of a PCR reaction is to __________.

Answer

The purpose of a PCR reaction is to amplify a targeted DNA region into millions of copies. PCR helps to yield several copies of DNA in a few hours allowing analysis. Each PCR cycles approximately doubles the amount of DNA present in the reaction.

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Question

rtPCR quantification method is a technique that __________.

Answer

Real time PCR is a technique that measures the amount of fluorescence that occurs with each cycle of PCR. The amount of fluorescence is directly proportional to the DNA concentration. The assay can also provide info such as the possible presence of inhibitors.

It is important to know how much DNA is present in a sample to optimize downstream processing.

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Question

Which of the following techniques could help improve the purity of a protein sample while maintaining the protein's native state?

Answer

The only choice that would actually be useful in improving the purity of a protein sample would be column chromatography. It is possible to attach a specific ligand to your protein of interest to help separate it from a mixture via this method.

SDS-PAGE results in a separated, but denatured, protein sample. Detergents used in this process damage the protein structure, making it impossible to retain the native state. Southern blotting is a technique used to identify specific sequences of DNA in a sample and has nothing to do with increasing the purity of a protein sample.

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Question

The determination of the order of the four bases—adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine—in a strand of DNA is termed __________.

Answer

DNA sequencing is used to determine the exact order of nucleotides that compose a given DNA molecule. This process can refer to any method that is used to determine the order of the nitrogenous bases in a strand of DNA.

DNA amplification is the duplication of regions of DNA to form multiple copies of a specific portion of the original region. DNA replication is the process of producing two identical replicas from one original DNA molecule. Gene flow is the movement of alleles from one population to another, owing to migration of individual organisms. Genetic recombination is the generation of new combinations of alleles on homologous chromosomes due to the exchange of DNA during crossing over.

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Question

Which of the following accounts for the inability of dideoxynucleotide triphosphates to further polymerize in Sanger DNA sequencing?

Answer

Dideoxynucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs) lack a 3' hydroxyl group, which is necessary for further polymerization past the ddNTP. In the absence of this 3' free hydroxyl group, ddNTPs cannot be linked to the next incoming nucleotide's 5' end. This halts DNA synthesis, and is the basis of Sanger (chain-termination) sequencing. Ordinary nucleotides do possess a 3' hydroxyl group, allowing them to polymerize further. Sanger sequencing takes advantage of this difference to terminate synthesis at various points.

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Question

Traditional Sanger style DNA sequencing relies on a method called chain termination. What type of molecule is used to terminate DNA chains to create molecules of all possible lengths covering the fragment to be sequenced?

Answer

The key to the chain termination method used in Sanger sequencing is the dideoxynucleotide. These modified bases, designated as ddNTP's rather than dNTP's, are missing their 3' hydroxyl group. This prevents further elongation of DNA strands being synthesized by a polymerase since DNA polymerases all require a 3' hydroxyl as their substrate. In the context of a whole sequencing reaction done before actual DNA sequencing, this creates strands of all possible lengths along your desired sequence.

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Question

Which of the following is used to focus the electrons when using an electron microscope?

Answer

Electron microscopes use beams of electrons instead of light. The electrons are focused by magnetic fields rather than by lenses.

A phase plate is used with a light microscope to view details of objects characterized by differences in refractive index and, as such, have a difference in brightness or color. Tissues deep within the body can be imaged using the technique of multiphoton microscopy, in which photons are directed into tissues by an infrared laser. The reticle is a tiny grid pattern inserted into the eyepiece lens. It is used to make measurements of objects seen through the lens.

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Question

Which of the following is not a type of the electron microscope?

Answer

The incorrect answer is retraction electron microscope. Transmission electron microscope is the simplest type by using a high voltage electron beam to formulate an image. Scanning electron microscopes produces an image through a scanning electron beam. Reflection electron microscopes use an electron beam that scatters when it hits a specimen, the image is then compiled from the scattered electron pattern. Scanning transmission electron microscopes uses a thin ray of electrons that scatters through the specimen to resolve the image.

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Question

Which of the following stains could be used to identify bacteria?

Answer

Gram staining is used to distinguish different types of bacteria in order to aid in their identification. Since bacteria are generally transparent, they must be stained before viewing under the microscope. Gram-positive microorganisms stain purple and Gram-negative microorganisms stain red or pink.

Acid fast stain is used to identify the causative agent of tuberculosis. White blood cells are differentiated after being stained with Wright's stain. Giemsa is used to stain blood cells and chromosomes. Tissues are stained with eosin.

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